How would I go about solving this?

Which of the following is a correct statement about how the Investment share of potential GDP (1/Y*) depends on the long-run real interest rate R*? Note that this is a question about moving along the Investment share curve. O If R* falls, then the cost of borrowing to finance new Investment projects will fall, so I/Y* will rise. ( If I/Y* rises, then the equilibrium long-run real interest rate will rise. O If R* rises, then firms will increase I/Y*, but only if the substitution effect is stronger than the income effect. O A fall in R* will cause I/Y* to be smaller than 1