I am buying a firm with an expected perpetual cash flow of $1,000 but am unsure of its risk. If I think the beta of the firm is zero, when the beta is really 1, how much more will I offer for the firm than it is truly worth? Assume the risk-free rate is 8% and the expected rate of return on the market is 18%. (Input the amount as a positive value. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

Present value difference