I am having a hard time understanding this question. Can someone please help me?

How might the current treatment of capital losses discourage an individual investor from purchasing stock of a high-risk start-up company? Try to provide a reason not already offered by another classmate.

I cannot use this reasoning:

If the individual taxpayer does not have capital gains, only $3,000 of capital losses may be deducted annually. It may take many years before an investor with a large capital loss is allowed to deduct all of the losses.