I have two questions about the statistical theory.

6.1.1; I tried to integrate the function, but I could not prove that it is equal or not equal to 1.

6.1.14: I thought we equate the derivative to 0, but I am not sure if it proves the likelihood functions are effectively the same.

Could you explain them step by step?

Thanks,

6.1.11 Suppose we have a statistical model {fo : 0 = [0, 1]} and we observe xp. Is it true that (L(0 | x0) de = 1? Explain why or why not.6.1.14 Suppose one statistician records a likelihood function as @- for 0 = [0, 1] while another statistician records a likelihood function as 1000- for @ = [0, 1]. Explain why these likelihood functions are effectively the same