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I know the answer is C. Please, correct me when Im wrong. When the exchange lacks commercial substance... If a FV of asset exchanged is
I know the answer is C.
Please, correct me when Im wrong.
When the exchange lacks commercial substance...
If a FV of asset exchanged is higher then BV of asset exchanged we use BV (which is lower than FV) as a cost basis of the aquired asset. Am I right?
Why then in this case we use FV of asset recereived? Cause this is more evident? and if we wouldnt know FV of received asset would we compute the cost of that new asset received as the BV of 450000 of asset given up (because BV in tat case lower that FV) Plus any cash received?
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