If a company declares a 2-for-5 reverse stock split, the price before the split is $30, and the price after the split is $75, show that a current shareholder is no better off after the split. The current shareholders are no better off after the 2-for- 5reverse split because if they owned one share at $30 per share before the split, they would then own ??? of a share worth $75 per share immediately after the split. Do they now own 2/5, 2, 5, or 7 of a share worth $75 per share immediately after the split?