Question
If R is a field and I is a nontrivial1 ideal of R, then I = R. I think this statement is true as a
If R is a field and I is a nontrivial1 ideal of R, then I = R.
I think this statement is true as a field requires nontrivial and multiplicative inverse. However, I don't know how to prove I has its multiplicative inverse
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High School Math 2011 Algebra 1(prentice Hall)
Authors: Prentice Hall
Student Edition
9780133500400, 0133500403
