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If the relative Purchasing Power Parity is hold between the US and the UK and the US dollar has been appreciated against the sterling pound

If the relative Purchasing Power Parity is hold between the US and the UK and the US dollar has been appreciated against the sterling

pound by 10 percent, but there is

partial (60%) exchange rate pass through.

What should be the price of the iPhone 14 pro in the UK (in

E) if it costs $1,000 in the US and the exchange rate is 0.79 USD?

How would this result into arbitrage?

Your answer should be on

British Sterling Pound not US dollar.

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