If there are no dividends on a stock, and you are looking at some American and some European calls. I think all of the statements below are not true; how about you? Do you think they all are untrue, or is there any true?

Group of answer choices

a$.$ An American call will sell for more than a European call

b$.$ A European call will sell for more than an American call

c$.$ An American call will be immediately exercised

d$.$ An American call and an American put may sell for the same price

e$.$ none of the above