IFMA PROJECT MANAGEMENT

1) Which activity should be treated as a project?

a. Implementing a new computerized maintenance management system (CMMS).

b. Regularly scheduled preventive maintenance on an air conditioner.

c. Weekly inspections of safety equipment.

d. Setting schedules for the security staff.

2) Facility management projects are typically used to accomplish which of the following?

a. Implementation of all operations and maintenance activities.

b. Respond to a project sponsor's mandate for a capital project even if release of capital funds is denied.

c. Respond to a merger/acquisition, rapid growth, or downsizing.

d. Implement a new organizational structure, staffing or systems.

3) Which activity unifies the independent project components?

a. Use of the Plan, Do, Check, Act model.

b. Scoping and communications

c. Integration or coordination

d. Use of project scheduling tools

4) A facility manager is determining whether he should be the project manager on a project. Which of the following is true of this decision?

a. If a project is within the facility manager's capabilities, there is no reason why he could not manage it.

b. The facility manager can manage a more complex project if he has frequently managed similar projects.

c. Except for major construction, facility managers are the project manager for all facility projects.

d. The facility manager is never the project manager for projects.

5) Which of the following is true of project models?

a. Planned iteration allows omission of some details to be added later.

b. The Plan, Do, Check, Act model has a finite duration.

c. Traditional waterfall models incorporate planned iteration.

d. Phases in project models should not be altered.

6) What can project models be applied to?

a. Individual process and phases but not the project as a whole.

b. The project as a whole or to individual processes, but not phases.

c. The project as a whole but not to individual processes or phases.

d. Individual processes and phases or to the project as a whole.

7) Which of the following statements regarding the PMBOK process groups is false?

a. The PMBOK process groups is a method for categorizing key project tasks.

b. PMBOK recognizes five project management process groups.

c. There is no overlapping between the PMBOK process groups, as no tasks can be performed iteratively.

d. Every process within a project activity fits into at least one of the PMBOK process groups.

8) What should you check to confirm a project is directly linked to the organization's long term plan?

a. Project charter

b. Strategic facility plan.

c. Success criteria

d. Project objectives statement

9) In what phase are a project's end results defined?

a. Plan.

b. Monitor

c. Execute

d. Initiate

10) The project manager's primary role in regards to permits for a construction project is ________.

a. applying for and obtaining the building permit

b. coordination to ensure that they are initiated soon enough to prevent delays or require corrections.

c. getting the general contractor to issue a certificate of occupancy

d. specifying the codes that must be followed

11) What is the next step once you know a project is feasible?

a. Define and document the success criteria.

b. Define the stakeholders in the project and their aims/requirements.

c. Define the scope and intended use of the project deliverables.

d. Define the parameters, assumptions, risks, and constraints for the project.

12) Which of the following statements regarding the project triangle is false?

a. It can be used to measure the practicality of a purpose.

b. It demonstrates how the constraints on a project's purpose are interdependent and affect feasibility.

c. It demonstrates how changes to one constraint affect the other constraints and overall quality.

d. It can be used to show how budget, schedule and scope do not affect quality of work.

13) What is the first step of the programming process?

a. Survey, interview, or observe employees to determine needs.

b. Obtain approval to perform programming from sponsors.

c. Set a schedule and deadlines for programming tasks.

d. Define the scope, goals, or success criteria for the programming.

14) A statement of requirements _____.

a. for design is an internally produced space planning and relocation forecast.

b. primarily expresses vision statement goals that are a type of stretch goal.

c. primarily expresses how to fulfill forecasted system needs.

d. lists alternative options for enacting the goals of the strategic facility plan.

15) What technique is used in goal setting and applies multiple factors to assess project feasibility?

a. Statement of requirements

b. Adjacency diagram

c. Project objectives statement.

d. SMART concept

16) How does programming differ from needs analysis?

a. Programming and needs analysis are the same.

b. Programming is focused on user needs, whereas needs analysis involves analyzing business processes.

c. Programming involves analyzing business processes, whereas needs analysis is focused on the physical requirements of users.

d. Programming determines the feasibility of a project, whereas needs analysis is focused on user needs.

17) Which of the following documents typically describes the business need for a project such as legal requirements, customer requirements, market demand, or social needs?

a. Project objectives statement.

b. Conceptual project budget

c. Project charter

d. Statement of requirements

18) An initial project team is assembled before the full project team needs are known. In this case, what is true?

a. The project team should only be assembled once the full project team needs are known.

b. Project managers select staff/contractors as team members with preference for persons available for the entire project duration.

c. Project managers only select staff as initial team members and wait to use contractors.

d. The initial project team must be available for the entire project.

19) What document refines the tasks outlined in the scope and deliverables documentation?

a. Project schedule.

b. Statement of requirements.

c. Project budget

d. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

20) What is NOT true about a project objectives statement?

a. It enables the creation of the project management plan.

b. It is only required for long-term, complex projects.

c. It includes a high-level budget and schedule.

d. It states the goals of the project and identifies scope and deliverables limitations.

21) A tenant improvement allowance is money set aside by a landlord in accordance with _____.

a. the estimated interior design and construction costs.

b. a building standard for use by a tenant to make the space suitable for occupancy

c. the actual interior design and construction costs

d. a scope/statement of work

22) What information must design/engineering firms have to ensure they address the right organizational needs?

a. Construction documents and drawings

b. Project management plan

c. Work breakdown structure

d. Statement of requirements.

23) A subtask can be subdivided into two work packages to be performed by the same person but cost and duration estimates would not be improved. Which of the following is true of this scenario?

a. Do not divide the subtask if it increases reporting and control requirements.

b. Do not divide the subtask if it increases risk identification rates.

c. Divide the subtask if the work packages are on the critical path.

d. Divide the subtask because the work packages improve task assignment.

24) What does not accurately describe the work breakdown structure (WBS)/task list?

a. It requires sequencing of tasks prior to project scheduling.

b. It allows project deliverables and work to be divided into manageable tasks and subtasks.

c. It helps ensure no tasks have been omitted.

d. It is a list of activities showing the tasks that need to be completed and who will complete the task.

25) What should be done before sequencing the tasks on the work breakdown structure?

a. Estimate resource requirements.

b. Assemble the project schedule.

c. Estimate task durations.

d. Determine resource availability and the required lead time.

26) What helps you identify those tasks that must be completed before the next task can begin?

a. Minor path scheduling

b. Forward pass scheduling

c. Critical path scheduling.

d. Backward pass scheduling

27) Which budget is most directly related to change control?

a. Risk management budget

b. Administrative budget

c. Quality control budget

d. Contingency budget.

28) What is used to determine if all required tasks have been done?

a. Quality metrics

b. Quality standards

c. Quality checklists.

d. Cost of quality (COQ)

29) What factor best describes effective communications management in a project plan?

a. When working with project team members, a high degree of formality is needed.

b. Executives generally desire reports only at milestones.

c. Communications should be limited to what each stakeholder needs to know to be effective.

d. All stakeholders should have a consult (two-way) communications relationship with project team members.

30) An organization creates a scope/statement of work before designs are complete and some contract details are vague. What is a risk if the organization is using fixed price contracts?

a. The contractor may exercise the right to append the contract.

b. The contractor may insist on a higher set hourly rate.

c. The contractor may need to be paid for more overtime.

d. The contractor may pad his/her estimates.

31) What does risk management NOT address?

a. Project failure

b. Ineffective communication

c. Conflicting priorities.

d. Schedule and budget overages

32) What information is a primary (main or major) input to the resource planning process?

a. Project budget

b. Project objectives statement

c. Project schedule

d. Work breakdown structure (WBS).

33) When defining roles for staff and contractors, what is NOT part of the project manager's responsibility?

a. Assign work packages to each role.

b. Divide work packages among each planned position.

c. Ensure staff has an optimum workload over contractors.

d. Group work packages by similar requirements for technical and social skills

34) Why does the risk management team review contract details?

a. To ensure all contract details are standard boilerplate materials.

b. To ensure all fair hiring and employment laws and regulations are followed.

c. To ensure all high significance, high impact risks are transferred.

d. To ensure the amount of risk transfer is appropriate and the cost is acceptable.

35) Why have a bid bond?

a. It verifies that contractors have proper insurance or licensure.

b. It commits the contractor to complete the work properly.

c. It makes the proposal legally binding if accepted.

d. It commits the contractor to paying for deliverables if not fulfilled properly.

36) What is typically true when assigning internal staff for the project team?

a. Project managers are typically considered line managers.

b. Part-time project team members with line responsibilities generally have no scheduling conflicts.

c. Project managers generally have no authority to acquire team members from other business units.

d. Project managers generally have no hiring authority.

37) What falls outside of a project manager's responsibility when integrating/coordinating tasks during the Executing, Monitoring, and Controlling phases of a capital construction project?

a. Keeping records on schedule, cost, progress, and quality.

b. Implementing standards and processes as planned.

c. Forecasting whether the project will stay on schedule.

d. Creating project charter and objectives documents.

38) What is true when controlling the schedule during project execution and control?

a. If work cannot be brought back on schedule, changing the schedule is not an option.

b. Project managers use schedule variance analysis as the primary guide for deciding whether to recommend actions or changes to the schedule.

c. Schedule creep is acceptable if it results in useful new features at an acceptable cost.

d. Small schedule slips are important and require immediate action.

39) What can a root cause analysis uncover when applied to quality assurance/quality control?

a. Whether the budget is forecasted to be met or exceeded.

b. The magnitude of deviations from the budget.

c. The reasons deliverables have defects.

d. Whether a variance from an original item price estimate is a factor.

40) What effectively holds a project team together and enables stakeholders to feel a sense of participation?

a. Managing communications.

b. Project scheduling technology

c. Quality management

d. Integration/coordination.

41) What do mid-project changes cause?

a. Efficiency remains the same, but costs increase.

b. Efficiency increases, but costs remain the same.

c. Decreased efficiency and increased costs.

d. Increased efficiency and decreased costs.

42) Once an owner takes custody of a building that was a deliverable in a facility management project, typically, the next step is that the owner _________.

a. begins the process of formal deliverable acceptance

b. formally commissions the building

c. places the facility manager in charge of operating and maintaining the building

d. conducts the punch list/snagging list walkthrough.

43) Formal acceptance of a deliverable triggers what process?

a. As-built review

b. Final inspection and validation process

c. Commissioning process

d. Warranty period.

44) If a project deliverable is rejected, what confirms the deliverable was repaired or corrected?

a. Risk management

b. Quality assurance.

c. Change control

d. Quality control

45) Who decides when a facility management equipment installation project is done and can be closed?

a. Facility manager

b. Owner

c. Project manager.

d. General contractor

46) In addition to scope verifications and financial audits, what else do contractor audits typically include?

a. Initial plan of record/final plan of record audits

b. Root cause analysis

c. Technical audits.

d. Pre- and post-occupancy surveys

47) What can be used to help update or improve policies, procedures, and practices?

a. Post-implementation audit.

b. Lessons learned

c. Post-occupancy survey

d. Balanced scorecard perspectives

48) A project is completed and all success criteria are met according to quality control. However, the project owners are dissatisfied with the deliverables. Which of the following could have occurred?

a. Changes that were accepted should have been rejected or vice versa.

b. Analysis of business value did not measure up to what was promised.

c. The deliverables failed to meet acceptance criteria.

d. The project manager failed to communicate a change in priorities effectively.