(ii) Now consider the realistic scenario where the employment-to-population ratio in France fell to eventually reach a level 75% that of the US, consistent with the information in Exhibit 2. To be precise, suppose that the US employment-to-population ratio is constant, but that the one in France is 125% that of the US from 1950 to 1955; 100% that of the US from 1955 to 1975; and 75% that of the US from 1975 onward. How does this affect the level of output per capita in France relative to the US in the long run? Is this more consistent with the evidence presented in Exhibit 1? What is the impact of this development on the growth rate of output per capita in the short run (i.e., in the years following 1955) and long run