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In comparing Texas v. United States and Thomas v. Union Carbide , both of these cases addressed the fitness and hardship criteria for ripeness. Why

In comparingTexas v. United StatesandThomas v. Union Carbide, both of these cases addressed the fitness and hardship criteria for ripeness. Why did the Court found that the criteria met inThomas, which meant the case was ripe, but they were not met inTexas? Are there any factual changes that would make theTexascase ripe, or theThomascase unripe?

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