In the 2012 CCES (Cooperative Congressional Election Study), individuals were asked what percent of a budget deficit should be made up of spending cuts (0-100%). For those with children under 18, the mean value was 59.44% with a standard deviation of 25.763%. For those without children, the mean value was 58.04% with a standard deviation of 25.80%. The weighted sample sizes were 10093 and 30492, respectively. Using a t-test, can we confidently reject the possibility that, in the population from which the sample was drawn, that the true difference is 0%, i.e., the means for each group are the same? Why or why not?