In this question, the correct answer is D. However, it doesn't make sense to me. The slope of the budget constraint is equal to

-P_x /P_y Hence, for the slope to be less than -1, this means that the price of good y must be greater than the price of good X for the line to be flat. What is wrong with my reasoning ? If the price of X is > price of Y, the line would have a slope greater than 1.

41. If a consumer's budget constraint has a slope that is less than -1: A) the consumer gets more utility from good X than from good Y. B) the price of good X is less than the price of good Y. C) the consumer gets less utility from good X than from good Y. D) the price of good X is greater than the price of good Y