In this question, we consider the finite market model with T > 1. Suppose there exists a self financing trading strategy 4 = (46) ?-1 such that Vo(6) = 0 and there is a 0 0. Justify that there exists a self financing trading strategy = ($) ?-such that Vr() > 0 and E[Vr] > 0. Deduce that the model is not arbitrage free. In this question, we consider the finite market model with T > 1. Suppose there exists a self financing trading strategy 4 = (46) ?-1 such that Vo(6) = 0 and there is a 0 0. Justify that there exists a self financing trading strategy = ($) ?-such that Vr() > 0 and E[Vr] > 0. Deduce that the model is not arbitrage free