Is it possible to have results of Y (the percentage of tangency portfolio) larger than 100% here? My calculation should be correct here. Is it correct, and is it possible in the finance world? Does this mean the investor needs to borrow money to invest in order to fulfill their expectations? The risk-free asset here is cash.

\begin{tabular}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline Tangency Portfolio & LQD & SPY & risk-free \\ \hline annualized avg. return & 4.03% & 15.85% & 2.00% \\ \hline annualized std. dev. & 5.22% & 11.33% & 0% \\ \hline Correlation with SPY & 0.170855756 & & \\ \hline Weight in SPY & 74.71% & & \\ \hline Weight in LQD & 25.29% & & \\ \hline Expected Return & 12.86% & & \\ \hline Standard Deviation & 8.79% & & \\ \hline \multicolumn{4}{|l|}{ Optimal Complete Portfolios } \\ \hline risk aversion coefficients (A) & 8 & 12 & 16 \\ \hline Y (\% in the tangency portfolio) & 175.87% & 117.25% & 87.93% \\ \hline \multicolumn{4}{|l|}{% SPY } \\ \hline \multicolumn{4}{|l|}{% LQD } \\ \hline% risk-free assests & & & \\ \hline \end{tabular}