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Is the fact that the third Fama-French factor, the Value Factor, has underperformed for the past fourteen years (i.e. the stocks of companies with Low

Is the fact that the third Fama-French factor, the Value Factor, has underperformed for the past fourteen years (i.e. the stocks of companies with Low Book Value/Market Value have outperformed companies with High Book Value/Market Value) clear evidence that the theory is incorrect? Explain.

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