is this correct?The fact that we can derive the British pound$/$lsraeli shekel exchange rate, say, from the dollar$/$pound rate and the dollar$/$shekel rate

follows from ruling out a potentially profitable arbitrage strategy known as triangular arbitrage. As an example, suppose that the British

pound price of a shekel was below the British pound price of a dollar times the dollar price of a shekel, as depicted by the hypothetical

data in the following table.

Using $$100$ to purchase the Israeli currency directly would obtain

shekels. $($Round your answer to one decimal place.$)$

Instead of buying shekels directly, an arbitrager may first buy British pounds and then use these funds to purchase shekels. In this case,

an outlay of $$100$ will obtain $250$ shekels. $($Round your answer to one decimal place.$)$