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Is this true for computing MIRR? Take FV of positive cash flows at the reinvestment rate, then take the PV of the negative cash flows
Is this true for computing MIRR?
Take FV of positive cash flows at the reinvestment rate, then take the PV of the negative cash flows at the finance rate. Then find the rate of return on the resulting 2 cash flow timelines.
If false, explain in similar terms. If true, just say so.
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