Just give me some ideas on this question pls

In France and Germany, it is difficult for a household to increase its borrowing based on an increase in the market value of the house. In addition, large down-payments (as a percentage of the house price) are required for house purchases. In the meantime, in the US or UK, loans are more easily available based on a rise in home equity and only a small down-payment is required.

(Note: A December 2014 VoxEU article, 'Combatting Eurozone deflation: QE for the people', tells you more about the influence of a change in house prices on spending in Europe and the US.)

https://voxeu.org/article/combatting-eurozone-deflation-qe- people#:~:text=Eurozone%20deflation%20is%20likely%20to,of%20following%20the %20Fed's%20lead.

a) On the basis of this information, how would you expect a rise in house prices in France or Germany to affect spending by households? How would you expect your answer to change when considering the US or UK?

b) How would you answer change if we take into account the fact that overtime, as people get older, they may move to smaller houses, apartments, or retirement villages?