Question
let f1(n); f2(n); g1(n); and g2(n) be functions of n such that f1(n) = (f2(n)) and g1(n) = (g2(n)) Using the formal definition of (),
let f1(n); f2(n); g1(n); and g2(n) be functions of n such that f1(n) = (f2(n)) and g1(n) = (g2(n))
Using the formal definition of (), show that the following may not necessarily hold: f1(n) - g1(n) = (f2(n) - g2(n)): (Here, you need to explicitly construct a counterexample.)
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Transactions On Large Scale Data And Knowledge Centered Systems Xxviii Special Issue On Database And Expert Systems Applications Lncs 9940
Authors: Abdelkader Hameurlain ,Josef Kung ,Roland Wagner ,Qimin Chen
1st Edition
3662534541, 978-3662534540
