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Let Fi be the Fibonacci numbers. Prove the following: You can assume that F0 = 1 and F1 = 1. You may use any type

Let Fi be the Fibonacci numbers. Prove the following:

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You can assume that F0 = 1 and F1 = 1. You may use any type of proof, however, I am currently trying to solve this as a proof by induction and am stuck on the (k+1) inductive step.

Please be thorough when explaining your answer. Thanks.

Let Fi be the Fibonacci numbers. Prove the following

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