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math of finance 2. Let X(n,p) denote a binomial random variable with parameters n and p. If W=X(n+1,p) and Y=X(n,p) then it follows that WstY.

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2. Let X(n,p) denote a binomial random variable with parameters n and p. If W=X(n+1,p) and Y=X(n,p) then it follows that WstY. Give an intuitive argument why this should be so. A formal proof is not required here

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