Question
MGMT 345 - Organizational and Industrial Psych Chapter 7 - Performance Management Textbook- Psychology Applies to Work- 12 Edition By- Paul M. Muchinsky & Satoris
MGMT 345 - Organizational and Industrial Psych Chapter 7 - Performance Management
Textbook- Psychology Applies to Work- 12 Edition By- Paul M. Muchinsky & Satoris S.Howes
1) Evaluations of an individual's performance that occur periodically within organizations known as: A. Performance management B. Performance appraisals C. Performance measurement D. Judgmental Evaluations
(p. 218)
2) The breach of duty to conduct appraisals with due care is: A. Defamation B. Misrepresentation C. Negligence D. Rating errors
(p. 224)
3) What happens when the goals of the organization and the goals of employees are not aligned? A. Individual performance contributes to organizational performance B. Individuals can do little to help the organization prosper C. There is not a connection between employee goals and organizational goals D. Organizational performance guides individual performance.
(p. 218)
4) When the goals of the organization and the goals of employees are directly related and connected to one another, they are: A. prioritized B. segmented C. aligned D. prosperous
(p. 218)
5) What is "alignment" in performance management? A. the rate of financial return on organizational investments B. the relationship among the various departments comprising the organization C. the relationship between the goals of the organization and the goals of individuals D. the criteria used by organizations to judge their own effectiveness
(p. 218)
6) Which of the following is not a reason to conduct performance appraisals? A. to provide employees feedback on their job performance B. to provide a legally defensible basis for personnel decisions C. to determine whether their employees are meeting job expectations D. to comply with federal law mandating their conduct.
(p. 218)
7) Which of the following is not a symptom of misalignment in performance management? A. employees engage in many urgent but not important activities B. employees work hard but accomplishing little C. high intra-organizational conflict D. the organization is pulled toward the right (e.g., becomes extremely conservative)
(pp. 218-219)
8) Performance appraisal contributes to performance management by: A. providing an evaluation of the overall performance of the organization B. providing an evaluation of the goals the organization has set for itself C. providing an evaluation of how the units (e.g., departments) within the organization perform D. providing an evaluation of each employee's performance
(p. 219)
9) Employees are provided coaching and other developmental opportunities in order to ensure future success in which step of the performance management process? A. Evaluation of performance B. Providing feedback C. Setting goals and communicating performance expectations D. Providing rewards to reinforce employee behavior
(p. 219)
10) The results of performance appraisals are used for which of the following purposes? A. To make decisions within individuals B. For documentation purposes C. To make decisions between individuals D. All of the above
(p. 220)
11) All of the following would fall under the administrative purpose of performance management systems except A. Making salary adjustments B. Goal setting C. Identifying individuals who should be terminated D. Deciding who should be promoted
(p. 220)
12) Pertaining to the performance management purpose of organizational maintenance, all of the following are true except: A. An organization can identify possible training needs B. An organization can determine how well employees within an organization are doing overall C. An organization can implement workforce planning efforts D. An organization provides feedback to employees that highlights job-related strengths and weaknesses
(pp. 220-221)
13) Which of the following is not described in you text as one of the six purposes of performance management systems? A. Administrative B. Developmental C. Strategic D. Individual Growth E. Communication
(pp. 221-223)
14) What are the "split roles" of supervisors in conducting performance appraisals? A. prosecutor and defendant B. critic and actor C. coach and judge D. friend and foe
(p. 223)
15) An organization states in its employee handbook that all employees will have their job performance evaluated every year on the anniversary date of their hire. An employee is hired, works for 22 months without ever being formally evaluated, then is fired for alleged "poor job performance.' The former employee could then sue the organization on the grounds of: A. discrimination B. negligence C. defamation D. misrepresentation
(p. 224)
16) Which of the following is not recommended for the content of performance appraisals? A. appraisals based on global assessments B. appraisals based on behaviors C. appraisals based on job related factors D. appraisals based on performance under the control of the employee
(p. 225)
17) Which of the following is not a procedural recommendation for performance appraisals? A. raters should be given written instructions on how to rate B. rating should be provided by one rater responsible for conducting ratings C. results of ratings should be formally communicated to employees D. appraisal system should be monitored to detect for possible abuses
(p. 225)
18) Chloe is a sales manager at Palmodian Enterprises and it is time for performance appraisals to be conducted. She evaluates a particularly strong employee, Frank. Afterwards, she evaluates Craig, who seems worse by comparison to Frank. It is likely that Chloe rated Craig lower than what she might have had Frank not been rated previously. Which of the following has occurred? A. A central tendency error B. A contrast error C. A serial position error D. A halo error
(p. 225)
19) Marion and Byron are introduced to 15 new couples at a party. They are able to recall the names of the first few couples and also the last two couples, but they can't recall the names of the rest of the couples. Based on research into memory errors, you should conclude that this couple's memory difficulties best illustrate: A. the serial position effect B. the primacy effect C. the recency effect D. the central tendency error
(p. 226)
20) Which of the following reflect the tendency for individuals to remember information when it is presented at a certain place within a sequence? A. Halo Errors B. Serial position errors C. Leniency errors D. Contrast error
(p. 226)
21) Which of the following is referred to as a halo effect? A. underestimating the influence of external factors when making judgments about people B. interpreting a person's behavior in comparison to others recently encountered C. drawing a general impression about an individual on the basis of limited amount of information D. the feeling experienced while playing a first-person shooter video game while listening to Beyonce
(p. 226)
22) Managers who won't give high ratings because they want employees "to have something to strive for" and won't give low ratings because they "don't want to discourage the employees" will most likely commit which type of rating error? A. halo B. positive leniency C. negative leniency D. central tendency
(p. 227)
23) Positive leniency occurs when: A. An evaluation is based on the rater's general opinions about an employee B. Evaluations are given lower than the true level of ability C. A rater is able to recall information presented last in a sequence D. Evaluations are given higher than the true level
(p. 227)
24) The tendency to rate everyone as average is considered a: A. Serial position error B. Halo error C. Central-tendency error D. Leniency error
(p. 227)
25) Which of the following would not fall under relative rating systems? A. Graphic Rating scales B. Paired comparisons C. Forced distributions D. Rank ordering E. None of the above
(p. 228)
26) Which of the following is not considered a criticism of rank ordering? A. Rank order data are all relative to some standard B. Rank ordering becomes tedious with large numbers of people C. The level of performance is unknown D. Ratings may be somewhat arbitrary for those with undifferentiated performance
(p. 228)
27) Which of the following describes a situation in which each employee is individually compared with every other employee in the group being evaluated? A. Rank ordering B. Forced Distributions C. Critical Incidents D. Paired comparisons
(p. 228)
28) Which of the following describes graphic rating scales? A. Each employee is individually compared with every other employee in the group being evaluated B. Individuals are rated on a number of traits or factors C. Supervisors record behaviors of employees that greatly influence their job performance D. All of the above
(p. 228)
29) When using the rank-order method of performance appraisal, which of the following statements is true? A. The person ranked first is perceived to be performing the best. B. The person ranked last is perceived to be performing unsatisfactory. C. There are very close differences in the job performance of the people being ranked (i.e., not much difference between first and last) D. There are large differences in the job performance of the people being ranked (i.e., big differences between first and last)
(p. 228)
30) When using the paired-comparison method of performance appraisal, how many comparisons will be made if there are 8 employees to evaluate? A. 8 B. 16 C. 24 D. 28 E. 32
(p. 228)
31) Which of the following rating errors cannot be eliminated when using the forced-distribution method of performance appraisal? A. halo B. positive leniency C. negative leniency D. central tendency
(p. 228)
32) Some managers resist use of the forced-distribution method of performance appraisal on the grounds they believe the performance of their employees is _____. A. normally distributed B. negatively skewed C. positively skewed D. bi-modal
(p. 229)
33) Top-grading is based on what method of performance appraisal? A. critical incidents B. ranking C. paired-comparison D. forced distribution
(p. 230)
34) Empirical studies on the effectiveness of top-grading to make organizations more efficient reveal top-grading is effective when used: A. 1-2 years B. 3-5 years C. 7-10 years D. Every year
(p. 230)
35) Which of the following is not a "critical incident" of job performance? A. "operates machinery without wearing safety goggles" B. "returns customer calls within 24 hours" C. "concludes meetings by soliciting questions from audience" D. "radiates confidence which inspires other employees"
(p. 231)
36) Behaviorally anchored rating scales are characterized by which of the following? A. only uses odd-numbered scale values B. scale points are left unspecified C. employee being rated specifies behaviors to be evaluated D. each scale point is a critical incident
(p. 231)
37) What is the typical goal of rater error training? A. to train raters to use different types of rating scales B. to train raters to understand that different people can view performance by different standards C. to train raters to become more aware of the stereotypes they hold of others D. to train raters to reduce rating errors
(p. 232)
38) Frame-of-reference training is directed toward providing raters with what? A. why it is necessary to conduct performance ratings B. what to look for in making ratings C. how it is possible to have different views of performance D. who is best qualified to evaluate performance
(p. 232)
39) Rate error training is a formal process in which appraisers are taught to make fewer of all of the following errors except: A. Contrast errors B. Leniency errors C. Halo errors D. Central-tendency errors
(p. 232)
40) Which of the following is not a concern raised with rater error training? A. The reduction of errors increases accuracy in ratings B. Increasing rater awareness may actually encourage the rater to over-correct their behaviors C. Raters may provide more variation in their rating thereby resulting in decreased rather than increased accuracy D. Raters may become more severe in order to combat leniency
(p. 232)
41) A concept that refers to organizationally induced pressures that compel raters to distort their evaluations is known as A. Halo effect B. Frame of reference training C. Rater error training D. Top grading E. Rater motivation
(p. 233)
42) Which of the following is not a reason for managers to give inflated ratings to their subordinates? A. high ratings reduce the opportunity for potential conflict with employees B. low ratings of employees suggest managers are doing a poor job of developing their own employees C. high ratings by managers of their own employees guarantees high ratings for themselves D. low ratings reduce the likelihood employees will achieve desired rewards (as a promotion)
(p. 233)
43) When there is a sense that most other raters are inflating their ratings of their subordinates, then a good rater has to protect and enhance the careers of his or her own subordinates and describes which of the following? A. Appraisal tendency B. Forced distributions C. False positives D. Appraisal politics
(p. 233)
44) The reluctance of failure of individuals to communicate bad news is known as the: A. downer effect B. target effect C. mum effect D. silencio effect
(p. 241)
45) The instrumental motive is when: A. Individuals seek feedback to defend or enhance their views of themselves B. Individuals are motivated to seek feedback in order to make themselves look better to other people C. Individuals seek feedback from others in order to improve their performance D. Individual distort feedback if it does not conform to their positive image of themselves
(p. 242)
46) If somebody attributes negative feedback to something that is within their control, what are they likely to do? A. They are likely to exert more effort to remedy the issue. B. They are likely to remain silent and make no attempt to try to change their behaviors. C. They are likely to engage in counterproductive behaviors directed at the organization. D. They are likely to engage in political behaviors.
(p. 243)
47) All of the following factors were described in the text to consistently contribute to effective performance appraisal interviews except A. The supervisor's support of the subordinate B. The fairness perceptions regarding the appraisal C. A welcoming of the subordinates participation D. The supervisor's knowledge of the subordinate's job and performance in it
(pp. 244-245)
48) Research on the degree to which employees think their performance evaluations were fair and accept them include all the following factors except which one? A. two-way communication during the appraisal meeting B. rater has at some time performed the ratee's job C. opportunity to rebut the evaluation D. ratings are used to make salary/promotion decisions
(p. 245)
49) Which of the following performance management practices gained prominence in the mid-1990s? A. conventional practices B. transitional practices C. cutting-edge practices D. 360 practices
(p. 247)
50) Which of the following performance management practices utilize crowdsourced feedback to provide input from peers and others? A. conventional practices B. transitional practices C. cutting-edge practices D. 360 practices
(p. 247)
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