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My text book seems to be saying contradictory things about Cohen's d. It said that Cohen's d is frequently used in estimating sample sizes but

My text book seems to be saying contradictory things about Cohen's d. It said that Cohen's d is frequently used in estimating sample sizes but it also said that effect size is independent of sample size. How can this be? Surely, if something is independent of something else then it isn't useful in estimating it?

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