ok now lest say that sin(t) * from t to t+2 of f(s)cos(s) ds + cos(t) * from t to t+2 of f(s)sin(s) ds = 0 holds for all t. does that imply that both sin(t) * from t to t+2 of f(s)cos(s) ds and cos(t) * from t to t+2 of f(s)sin(s) ds = 0