On Jan. 1 of the current year, Jim and Bob form a Partnership. Jim contributes land with a FMV of $100 and Bob contributes cash of $100. If a partnership has no income, gain, loss or deductions in the year except for the sale of land, land has a tax basis of $60 but a book value of $100. (each partner 50% interest in capital, profits and losses). If the Partnership invests Bob's cash in stock, sells the stock at a tax and book gain of $30 in the same taxable year in which it sells the land, would the utilization of the "traditional method with curative allocations change anything in the transaction?