Over the past five years, the exchange rate between British pound and U.S. dollar, $/, has changed from about 1.90 to about 1.45.Would you agree that over this five-year period that British goods have become cheaper for buyers in the United States? Do governments occasionally use their currencies as instruments to regulate trade imbalances? Assuming this may be the case, discuss the pros and cons of this measure?

Please I need explication 1 - 2 pg.