Please assume that the following took place during the classical Gold Standard era (1875-1914): Nucky, a Jersey City-based investor, recently borrowed 500,000 from a British bank under his name to finance possible investments in British firms or real assets. Nucky was recently informed that the U.S. dollar is pegged at $36=1 ounce of gold, while the British pound is pegged at 6=1 ounce of gold. Nucky also heard from Dr. Narcisse, his friend from a local study group, that the U.S. dollar and British pound trade at $8=1 when directly traded. Is there any arbitrage from foreign exchange rates Nucky can take advantage of? If so, how much profit will Nucky be able to generate, provided that he borrowed 500,000 ? Assume that the interest rate for the 500,000 Nucky borrowed is 5.5%. $166,666.67 $139,166.67 $143,245.29 Nucky will not have any arbitrage opportunities under the given facts