Please explain the following in economic senses.

Deeper reflection question: In the production model, we refer to GDP per person as the measure of rich a country is, and by extension, as a measure of the standards of living in that country. Can you think of limitations to this approach? Note that this question is very broad and can be approached in many different ways. You can use the following prompts to guide your reflection if you wish (but you don't have to): . Is GDP per person a good measure of standards of living? Do two countries with the same GDP per person necessarily feature the same standards of living? . If not, what other important factors did we omit in our models? . Why could it be misleading to refer to GDP per person as "income per person"