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Please show detailed steps :) Let G be a perpetuity. Its first cash flow, at the end of the first year, is C1. The relevant

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Let G be a perpetuity. Its first cash flow, at the end of the first year, is C1. The relevant discount rate is r. The formula for the present value of the perpetuity (PV(G)) follows from A. Peyton= =1 an fire only B. PV(G)(1+r) = E=1 (1+4)e-1 Only C. PV(G)(1+r) = (1 + PV(G) only D. Both B and C E. I choose not to

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