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Please show detailed steps :) Let G be a perpetuity. Its first cash flow, at the end of the first year, is C1. The relevant
Please show detailed steps :)
Let G be a perpetuity. Its first cash flow, at the end of the first year, is C1. The relevant discount rate is r. The formula for the present value of the perpetuity (PV(G)) follows from A. Peyton= =1 an fire only B. PV(G)(1+r) = E=1 (1+4)e-1 Only C. PV(G)(1+r) = (1 + PV(G) only D. Both B and C E. I choose not toStep by Step Solution
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