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Q1The source's view of the destination of the communication is a communication microbarrier. a. true b. false Q2. Influencing is often referred to as the

Q1The source's view of the destination of the communication is a communication microbarrier. a. true b. false Q2. Influencing is often referred to as the fundamental management skill. a. true b. false Q3. The increasing need for information in today's society is a communication microbarrier. a. true b. false Q4. Managers can use grapevines advantageously to maximize information flow to employees. a. true b. false Q5. Organizational communication that follows the line of the organization chart is called informal organizational communication. a. true b. false Q6. Verbal communication is the sharing of information without using words to encode thoughts. a. true b. false Q7. Successful communication refers to an interpersonal communication situation in which the information the source intends to share with the destination, and the meaning the destination derives from the transmitted message are the same. a. true b. false Q8. With the gossip grapevine, one individual typically informs everyone else on the grapevine. a. true b. false Q9. Which of the following would be considered a nonverbal form of communication? a. a written performance appraisal b. the tone of the voice c. a teleconference d. an e-mail e. a written policy Q10. Which of the following is a communication macrobarrier? a. message interference b. words with multiple meanings c. perception d. need for increasingly complex information e. noise Q11. Formal organizational communication can be increased if managers listen attentively to messages that come through formal channels. a. true b. false Q12. The gossip grapevine tends to distort messages more than any other grapevine pattern. a. true b. false Q13. One strategy for encouraging formal organizational communication is to ensure that all organization members have free access to formal communication channels. a. true b. false Q14. The situational approach was the earliest of theories about what makes leaders effective. a. true b. false Q15. Transformational leaders raise followers' levels of awareness of organizational issues and their consequences. a. true b. false Q16. Leaders in modern organizations have been confronting many situations rarely encountered by organizational leaders of the past. a. true b. false Q17. Boss-centered leadership behaviors are more autocratic, and subordinate-centered leader behaviors are more democratic. a. true b. false Q18. Under which leadership theory does the leader inspire organizational success by profoundly affecting followers' beliefs in what an organization should be, as well as their values, such as justice and integrity? a. transformational leadership b. path-goal leadership c. entrepreneurial leadership d. superleadership e. situational leadership Q19. Which of the following is a situational leadership theory? a. the Michigan Studies b. path-goal theory c. the Ohio State studies d. superleadership e. the trait approach Q20. According to the contingency theory of leadership, ________ is the degree to which the goals and other situational factors are outlined clearly. a. Transformational leadership b. Positive power c. Leader-member relations d. Task structure Q21. A considerate leader would be more effective than a structuring leader when the leader-member relations are good, the task structure is weak, and the leader position power is weak. a. true b. false Q22. Leader flexibility is the ability of the leaders to change leadership styles. a. true b. false Q23. The Vroom-Yetton-Jago Model of leadership provides that subordinates should accept and be committed to organizational decisions that are made. a. true b. false Q24. Contemporary management writers and practitioners generally agree leadership ability cannot be explained by an individual's traits or inherited characteristics. a. true b. false Q25. Which approach to leadership views the personal characteristics of an individual as the main determinants of how successful that individual could be as a leader? a. characteristic approach b. situational approach c. subordinate-centered approach d. behavior approach e. trait approach Q26. The coaching leader identifies inappropriate behavior in followers and suggests how they might correct that behavior. a. true b. false Q27. Intrinsic rewards are rewards that come directly from performing a task. a. true b. false Q28. Activities based on Theory Y assumptions are more apt to motivate organization members than are activities based on Theory X assumptions. a. true b. false Q29. McGregor implies that managers who use Theory X assumptions are 'good' and those who use Theory Y assumptions are 'bad'. a. true b. false Q30. The only real difference between Maslow and Alderfer is that Maslow identified three levels of needs and Alderfer identified five. a. true b. false Q31. A firm may be able to increase employee commitment and motivation by simply developing a policy of attempting to hire from within the organization prior to going to outside sources. a. true b. false Q32. Which of the following motivation theories focuses on the personal and natural development of people to explain human needs? a. Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory b. McClelland's Acquired Needs Theory c. Alderfer's ERG Theory d. Argyris' Maturity-Immaturity Continuum e. The Vroom Expectancy Theory Q33. Which theory is a set of essentially positive assumptions about human nature? a. Equity Theory b. Theory Z c. Theory Y d. Theory X e. Expectancy Theory Q34. Alderfer's ERG Theory categorizes three basic categories of needs as Existence, Relatedness, and Goals. a. true b. false Q35. Managers should look upon Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs more as a subjective statement rather than an objective statement of human needs. a. true b. false Q36. According to the Needs-Goal Theory of Motivation, motivation begins with an individual feeling a need. a. true b. false Q37. According to equity theory, everyone who feels treated unfairly at work will seek other employment. a. true b. false Q38. ________ involves negative assumptions about people that McGregor believes managers often use as a basis for dealing with their subordinates. a. Theory Z b. Theory Y c. Theory X d. Job Design Q39. A working team is an organizational team set up to help eliminate a specified problem within the organization. a. true b. false Q40. According to Homans' Model, the informal group is established to provide satisfaction and growth for its members. a. true b. false Q41. A task group is a formal group outlined in the chain of command on an organization chart. a. true b. false Q42. Self-managed work teams developed in the ________. a. 1990s b. 1960s c. 1980s d. 1970s Q43. Which of the following is an analytical tool that can be used to determine what informal groups exists in an organization and who the members of those groups are? a. sociogram b. social diagram c. reciprocity diagram d. PERT e. sociometry Q44. The larger the organization, the less the probability committees will be used on a regular basis. a. true b. false Q45. The procedure for conducting a sociometric analysis in an organization is to simply ask various organization members to name several other organization members with whom they would like to spend free time. a. true b. false Q46. The stage of formal group development in which group members attempt to maximize the group's success by matching individual abilities with group activities by assisting one another is the group control stage. a. true b. false Q47. Good managers constantly try to help groups become teams. a. true b. false Q48. A people-related step in building an effective team is setting stable goals and priorities for the team. a. true b. false Q49. Which stage of team development is characterized by conflict and disagreement as team members try to clarify their individual roles and challenge the way the team functions? a. performing b. forming c. adjourning d. norming e. storming Q50. Which of the following would be an example of a task group? a. a group meeting to consider the feasibility of a new product b. a self-managed work group c. a quarterly planning group d. an informal group e. a group meeting to prepare the monthly financial reports

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