Random variables X, Y, Z are said to form a Markov chain in that order (denoted by X Y Z) if their joint probability distribution can be written as: p(X,Y,Z) = P(X).p(YX).p(Z|Y) 1. Suppose (X, Y, Z) forms a Markov chain. Is it possible for I (X; Y)= I (X; Z)? If yes, give an example of X, Y, Z where this happens. If no, explain why not.