Roy Weintraub states, "President Richard Nixon, defending deficit

spending against the conservative charge that it was "Keynesian," is reported to have replied, "We're all Keynesians now." In fact, what he should have said is "We're all neoclassicals now, even the Keynesians."" Anwar Shaikh states, "First is Keynesian theory. What is important is that it is constructed differently from neoclassical theory. It is not to be derived by putting imperfections in neoclassical theory; it's really a different theory." How can Weintraub and Shaikh hold such different views on Keynesian theory? Relying primarily on these two authors explain, to the best of your ability, how they came to the conclusions on the role of Keynes as either inside the neoclassical tradition or completely outside of it.