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'stion 18 0 / 1 pts Suppose we have two independent, normally distributed random samples of size 75. The mean for group one is 1.11

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'stion 18 0 / 1 pts Suppose we have two independent, normally distributed random samples of size 75. The mean for group one is 1.11 with a standard deviation of 1.82. The mean for group two is -0.2 with a standard deviation of 3.24. Would it be reasonable to assume equal varian between these two groups? (Your answer should be YES or NO

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