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Suppose Bill can invalidate the claim that the distribution of sales for this company is normally distributed and show that it is, instead, right skewed.

Suppose Bill can invalidate the claim that the distribution of sales for this company is normally distributed and show that it is, instead, right skewed. Would the argument made in (i) above still hold? (Your answer should be a "yes" or a "no", followed by a sentence or two justifying your choice)

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