Question
Suppose f: R R is a function from the set of real numbers to the same set with f(x)=x+1. We write f 2 to represent
Suppose f: R R is a function from the set of real numbers to the same set with f(x)=x+1. We write f2 to represent f o f and fn+1 = fn o f. Is it true that f2 o f=f o f2? Why? is the set { g: R R 1 g o f= f o g} infinite? why?
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Numerical Analysis
Authors: Richard L. Burden, J. Douglas Faires
9th edition
538733519, 978-1133169338, 1133169333, 978-0538733519
