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The CFO of a large bank argues: It is ridiculous to recognize any fair-value gains or losses on our debt instruments that we intend holding

The CFO of a large bank argues: "It is ridiculous to recognize any fair-value gains or losses on our debt instruments that we intend holding to maturity. Since we intend holding these securities, we are insulated from the whims of the market." Do you agree? Explain why or why not. Given your answer, what are the implications for financial analysts following the company?

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