The corporation defendant consented to a judgement against it.The issue was whether its owner/director, Smith, was personally liable.The defendant corporation provided cabinets for Smith's personal residence.The transaction was with the defendant corporation.The house went into foreclosure but the corporation was owed $250,000.Smith did not give any personal guarantee; he owed $250,000 to the defendant corporation for the cabinets.

Is this a case in which the Courts would "lift the corporate veil"?Why or why not?