The following statements about Eurobonds are extracted from the prescribed textbook. "Government and companies have issued foreign bonds in London since the 19th century, and foreign bond issues expended in such countries as the United States, Japan, and Switzerland during the 1980s. But the 1960s saw the emergence of another bond market: the Eurobond market." The question is about a US firm that has issued two 5-year vanilla bonds both in the US domestic market and the Eurobond market in the same year in the 1980s. Question: After the issuance, the yield of Eurobonds was 20 bps lower than that of domestic bonds in several years. What would be an appropriate explanation, in your opinion