The market risk premium used in a CAPM analysis is $5\mathrm{.}7\%.$ The risk free rate is $2\mathrm{.}5\%.$ What is this analysis assuming about a long$-$term average annual return on a broad market?

It must be about $3\mathrm{.}2\%.$

There is not enough information here to answer the question.

It must be about $8\mathrm{.}2\%.$