The Project $x$ has just one outflow: $-$$$1,000$ at $t=0,$ this means that it is not discounted and its $PV=-$$$1,000.($Note: If the project has more than one outflow, you need to find the PV at $t=0$ for each one and sum them to arrive at the PV of total costs for use in the MIRR calculation.$)$

You need to find the future value of each inflow compounded at the WACC out to the terminal year, which is the year the last inflow is received. $($Hint: Assume that cash flows are reinvested at the WACC.$)$

You have the cost at $t=0,-$$$1,000,$ and the FV$.$ There is some discount rate that will cause the PV of the terminal value to equal the cost. That interest rate is defined as the MIRR. $($Note: Using your financial calculator, enter $N=4,PV=-1,000,PMT=0,$ and FV$.$ Then when you press the I$/$YR key, you get the MIRR. Some calculators have a built$-$in MIRR function that streamlines the process. In Excel, you can use either the RATE function or MIRR function to calculate the MIRR.$)$

Project $x$

$\backslash$table$[[$WACC $=15\%,0,1,2,3,4$