The State may not be sued without its consent - this doctrine has long been in existence since the establishment of this State and has been provided in our constitutions. In our Civil Code, it is provided that the state may be held liable for damages arising from contracts entered into in their private capacity. (a.) Suppose there is irreconcilability between these two laws, which law shall prevail? (b.) Will your answer be the same if the immunity of the state and its subdivisions was enacted after the law providing that the state may be held liable in case of damages arising from acts done in their private capacity? (c.) When there is an irreconcilability between a general provision in a special law and a particular provision in a general law, which shall prevail