This is in accordance to UK TORT LAW, I want a detailed answer

Critically (and using case law where applicable), discuss the following statement: 'Once it is understood that nuisances 'productive of sensible personal discomfort' do not constitute a separate tort of causing discomfort to people but are merely part of a single tort of causing injury to land, the rule that the plaintiff must have an interest in the land falls into place as logical and, indeed, inevitable.' Lord Hoffman in Hunter v Canary Wharf Ltd [1997] AC 655 at 707