Under some assumptions the fundamental value of a firm may be expressed as P1 = (1 k)y, +k(@x, - d.) Where P, y, x and d denote Price, book value, income and dividends respectively, t is the time subscript, and o is the ratio of (1+r)/r, r being the cost of capital. Does this formula lead to arbitrage free pricing? Why or why not? [Hint: Differentiate with respect to dividend to verify if there is an arbitrage possibility] Under some assumptions the fundamental value of a firm may be expressed as P1 = (1 k)y, +k(@x, - d.) Where P, y, x and d denote Price, book value, income and dividends respectively, t is the time subscript, and o is the ratio of (1+r)/r, r being the cost of capital. Does this formula lead to arbitrage free pricing? Why or why not? [Hint: Differentiate with respect to dividend to verify if there is an arbitrage possibility]