Question
What happens if we graph both f and f 1 on the same set of axes, using the x-axis for the input to both f
What happens if we graph bothf and f1 on the same set of axes, using the x-axis for the input to bothf andf1 ?
[Suggestion: go towww.desmos.com/calculatorand typey=x3 {-2 < x < 2},y=x1/3 {-2 < x < 2}, andy = x{-2 < x < 2}, and describe the relationship between the three curves.] Then post your own example discussing the difficulty of graph bothandon the same set of axes.
Supposef:RR is a function from the set of real numbers to the same set with f(x)=x+1 . We writef2to represent ff and fn+1 = fnf . Is it true thatf2f=ff2? Why? Is the set { g:RRgf=fg } infinite? Why?
I am to explain in words
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