Which of the following is not a correct step associated with performing a money market hedge of a foreign currency payable due in one year? Select ALL that apply to receive marks in this question Select one or more: i. Borrowing in your domestic money market today ii. Investing the present value of the payable in the domestic currency money market today iii. Selling domestic currency in the spot market today in order to purchase the foreign currency iv. Investing the contracted size of the payable in the foreign currency money market today v. Paying back in one year's time the principal and interest on a loan taken out in the domestic currency vi. Borrowing the present value of the payable in the foreign currency money market today