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Which of the following statement is correct? Higher underlying asset volatility leads to higher call option price under the Black-Scholes formula is because there is

Which of the following statement is correct?

Higher underlying asset volatility leads to higher call option price under the Black-Scholes formula is because there is greater need to hedge for more volatile assets

Suppose you wrote a call option and you want to cover your downside, you can write put of the same underlying asset

Higher underlying asset volatility leads to higher call option price under the Black-Scholes formula is because there is longer time to exercise the option

Suppose you wrote a call option and you want to cover your downside, you can buy risk-free asset

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