Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Group of answer choices

Beta measures market risk, which is$,$ theoretically, the most relevant risk measure for a publicly$-$owned firm that seeks to maximize its intrinsic value. This is true even if not all of the firm's stockholders are well diversified.

If the calculated beta underestimates the firm's true investment risk$$i$.$e$.,$ if the forward$-$looking beta that investors think exists exceeds the historical beta$$then the CAPM method based on the historical beta will produce an estimate of rs and thus WACC that is too high.

The specific risk premium used in the CAPM is the same as the risk premium used in the bond$-$yield$-$plus$-$risk$-$premium approach.

An advantage shared by both the dividend growth model and CAPM methods when they are used to estimate the cost of equity is that they are both "objective" as opposed to "subjective," hence little or no judgment is required.