Which of the following statements is CORRECT? The after-tax cost of debt that should be used as the component cost when calculating the WACC is the average after-tax cost of all the firm's outstanding debt. Suppose some of a publicly-traded firm's stockholders are not diversified; they hold only the one firm's stock. In this case, the CAPM approach will result in an estimated cost of equity that is too low in the sense that if it is used in capital budgeting, projects will be accepted that will reduce the firm's intrinsic value. The cost of equity is generally harder to measure than the cost of debt because there is no stated, contractual cost number on which to base the cost of equity. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach is the most sophisticated and objective